اسئلة النسائية 2017 (1)
1) Regarding antenatal care , all of the following statements are correct except :
A) Regular ANC can prevent hydrops fetalis .
B) Regular ANC can minimize the risk of Post term pregnancies .
C) Pelvic examination is done routinely .
D) Mother's who are seronegative for rubella should be immunized after delivery .
E) Screening for GBS reduces the risk of neonatal sepsis .
2) Principles of the management of septic abortion include all of the following except
A) Cervical swab for culture
B) IV antibiotics
C) Correction of hypovolemia
D) Immediate evacuation of the uterus
E) Cross matching for 2 units of blood .
3) Large for date uterus include all of the following except
A) Multiple gestation
B) Polyhydramnios
C) Breech presentation
D) Uterine fibroids
E) Wrong dates
4) All of the following are side effects of progesterone only contraceptive pills except
A) Irregular menstrual cycle
B) Complex ovarian cyst
C) Breast tenderness
D) Acne
E) Weight gain
5) 25 years old woman presented with fever , lower abdominal pain and tenderness , diagnosis of PID is confirmed by
A) Detection of gonococci in an endocervical swab
B) Leucocytosis
C) Presence of adnexal mass
D) Laparoscopy
E) Ultrasonography
6) The following conditions may be associated with diabetes except
A) HTN
B) Fetal anal atresia
C) Fetal encephalocele
D) Postmaturity
E) VSD
7) Regarding radiologic evaluation of patient with uterine fibroid . All of the following tests are helpful except
A) Computed tomography
B) MRI
C) Hystersalpingogram
D) Ultrasound scan
E) Plain X Ray
8) Alpha fetoprotein is the tumor marker for which ovarian tumor
A) Endodermal sinus tumor
B) Epithelial tumors
C) Granulosa cell tumor
D) Dysgerminoma
E) Choriocarcinoma
9) Which of the following is a contraindicated to the use of the tocolytic Ritodrine
A) ROM
B) Fetal age less than 32 weeks
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Uterine anomalies
E) Breech presentation
10) Regarding infertility all are essential investigations except
A) Laparoscopy
B) Progesterone day 21
C) Hystersalpingogram
D) Semen fluid analysis
E) CBC
11) Regarding clomiphene citrate , only one of the following statements are correct
A) Decreases pituitary gonadotrophin secretion
B) Give IM
C) May cause ovarian hyperstimulation
D) Ideally should be used for more 12 months
E) It competes with progesterone receptors in the high centers
12) All of the following give good support to genital tract organs except
A) Transverse cervical ligaments
B) Levator ani muscles
C) Uterosacral ligaments
D) Pelvic floor fascia
E) Round ligaments
13) Regarding Endometrial cancer , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Rarely occur before the age of 40
B) Adenocarcinoma is the commonest type
C) Usually present with postmenopausal bleeding
D) The diagnosis may be suspected by abnormal pap smear
E) Usually advanced stage at the time of diagnosis
14) PCOS only one statement is correct
A) Is Ultrasonographically present in about 20% of premenopausal women
B) Is characterized by increased sensitivity to insulin
C) Is the commonest cause of premature menopause
D) Is associated with a negative progesterone challenge test
E) Commonly causes hyperprolactinemia
15) Regarding Puerperal breast abscess , all of the following are correct except
A) Staphylococcus aureus is the commonest infecting organism
B) Segmental parts of the breast affected
C) Surgical incision is necessary
D) Antibiotics should be given
E) Is usually diagnosed by mammogram
16) Breech presentation with flexed hips and extended knees is called
A) Complete
B) Frank
C) Footling
D) Incomplete
E) True
17) Regarding Pap smear test , all of the following are correct except
A) Is a screening test for cervical cancer
B) Is a cytologic examination of the exfoliated cells from the cervix
C) The false negative rate can reach 20% for preinvasive disease
D) It should not be performed in the bleeding phase of menstrual cycle
E) Application of 3% acetic acid to the cervix before sample collection increased false positive result
18) Factors that increase the risk of thromboembolism in pregnancy , include all of the following except
A) Suppression of lactation with oestrogen
B) Prolonged hospital stay
C) Induction of labour
D) Cardiac disease
E) Thrombophilia
19) Twin pregnancy is associated with increase risk of all of the following except
A) Iron deficiency
B) Abnormal lie
C) Fetal anomalies
D) Prolonged pregnancy
E) Preeclampsia
20) 20 weeks pregnant discovered to have low lying placenta on routine ultrasound scan , your action will be
A) Admit to the hospital
B) Give steroids
C) Repeat USS examination at 28 weeks
D) Advice the patient regarding cesarean delivery
E) Repeat USS weekly
21) Predisposing factors to developing stress incontinence include all of the following except
A) Grand _Multiparty
B) Post_menopausal
C) Spinal disc prolapse
D) Previous pelvic surgery
E) Prolonged second stage of labour
22) Regarding cervical incompetence , only one of the following is correct
A) Is a common cause of first trimester abortion
B) Can only be diagnosed by clinical history
C) Commonly occur following multiple pregnancy
D) May be congenital
E) Requires a cervical cerclage before 10 weeks gestation
23) Induction of labour is contraindicated in all the following except
A) Placenta praevia
B) Abnormal antenatal CTG
C) Cervical carcinoma
D) Fetal growth restriction
E) Transverse lie
24) Fetal hyperinsulinemia causes increase growth of the following tissue except
A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Brain
D) Subcutaneous fat
E) Muscles
25) Regarding induction of labour , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Postdate is the commonest indication
B) Oxytocin is used for induction in unfavorable cervix
C) Is contraindicated in active genital herpes infection
D) Artificial ROM is used for induction in favourable cervix
E) Is indicated in about 15% of all deliveries
26) Regarding preeclampsia / eclampsia , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Nulliparity is the most common risk factor
B) Increases the risk of placental Abruptio
C) The most common cause of fetal death is prematurity
D) Mild preeclampsia is symptomless
E) Associated with fetal macrosomia
27) Regarding menopause , one of the following is correct
A) The average age of menopause is 53 years
B) HRT are used mainly to treat vasomotor symptoms
C) Below the age of 45 is called premature menopause
D) The age of menopause in a premenopausal hysterectomiesed patient is around 53 years
E) Patient with breast cancer will go into early menopause
28) All of the following are indications for anti_D administration except
A) Artificial ROM
B) Antepartum hemorrhage
C) External cephalic version
D) Cordocentesis
E) Manual removal of placenta
29) Factors that increase the risk of genital prolapse , include all of the following except
A) Hysterectomy
B) Forceps delivery
C) Prolonged labour
D) Chronic constipation
E) Repeat cesarean section
30) Regarding abortion , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Ovulation can occur 2 week after abortion
B) Ultrasound is not essential for the diagnosis of missed abortion
C) Abortion occurs in 15% of pregnancies
D) In threatened abortion , 20% will progressive into the loss of the fetus
E) In inevitable abortion the cervix is dilated
31) Regarding Vulvovaginal candidiasis , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Is mainly due to candida albicans
B) May be associated with dysparaunia
C) The vulva is usually healthy looking
D) Culture is diagnostic
E) Increase risk with cephalosporines use
32) Regarding lactation , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Human milk contains less protein than cow's milk
B) Controlled by Prolactin
C) Can be suppressed by bromocriptine
D) Can be continue for up to 4 years
E) It is maintained by HPL
33) Prenatal workup of one of your patient , you discovered is rubella non immunized . What is the best time to vaccinate her
A) At least 8 week post partum
B) In the second trimester
C) in the third trimester
D) In the early postpartum period
E) In the first trimester
34) One of the following procedures is useful toward making a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy
A) Serum C_reactive protein
B) Urinary progesterone level _ 24 hours collection
C) Abdominal X_Ray
D) Hysteroscopy
E) Laparoscopy
35) Regarding preterm premature ROM , all of the following are suggestive chorioamnionitis except
A) Maternal tachycardia
B) Maternal fever
C) Uterus smaller than date
D) Raised WBC count
E) Greenish vaginal discharge
36) Regarding heparin , all of the following statements are correct except
A) The specific antidote is protamine sulphate
B) Is contraindicated during lactation
C) Monitored by PTT
D) Is safe during the first trimester
E) Can cause Thrombocytopenia
37) Investigations for recurrent abortion May include all of the following except
A) Transvaginal ultrasound
B) Thrombophilia screening
C) TORCH screen
D) Parental karyotyping
E) Hysteroscopy
38) All of the following should be performed in a 45 years old patient with menorrhagia except
A) Mammogram
B) Bimanual pelvic examination
C) Pelvic ultrasound
D) Cervical smear
E) Dilatation and curettage
39) The denominator in face presentation
A) Occipit
B) Sinciput
C) Chin
D) Nose
E) Maxilla
40) Causes of lower abdominal pain at 10 weeks of pregnancy , include all of the following except
A) Acute appendicitis
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Spontaneous abortion
D) Sickle cell disease
E) Acute polyhydramnios
41) The most common cause of secondary postpartum hemorrhage
A) Uterine fibroids
B) Coagulation defect
C) Trauma to genital tract
D) Infection
E) Abnormal arterio_venous formation
42) Regarding puerperium , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Lochia rubra is seen in the first few days
B) Lochia serosa is seen up to the 2 week
C) Lochia alba is seen after the 2 week
D) Uterus returns to the pelvis after 2 week
E) Uterus returns to the normal size after 6 weeks
43) Regarding epidural analgesia , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Has greater pain relief efficacy compared with parenteral Opioids
B) Contraindicated in women with IUGR baby
C) Can be used for patient with multiple pregnancies
D) IV infusion of crystalloid prior to insertion of epidural is essential
E) Contraindicated in patient with coagulation disorders
44) All of the following diseases are transmitted by contact ( direct, indirect, droplet ) except
A) Anthrax
B) Ascariasis
C) Chickenpox
D) Gonorrhea
E) Smallpox
45) Regarding UTI in pregnancy , all of the following statements are correct except
A) E coli is the commonest causative organism
B) Cure should be confirmed in all cases by repeat urine culture
C) Pyelonephritis is commoner in the right side
D) Treatment of asymptomatic bacteruria reduce the risk of Pyelonephritis significantly
E) All women with simple Pyelonephritis should be investigated by renal ultrasound
46) The most significant single factor of fetal mortality in twin pregnancy
A) Polyhydramnios
B) Hypertensive disorders
C) Fetal abnormalities
D) Premature labour
E) Antepartum hemorrhage
47) One of the following tests is useful to test for ovulation if performed in middle menstrual cycle
A) Plasma oestriol
B) HCG
C) LH surge
D) Serum progesterone
E) FSH level
48) A 36 years old, in her first pregnancy with twin pregnancy at term is
A) G1P2
B) G2P2
C) G2P1
D) G1P1
E) G1P0
49 ) Transplacental transmission occurs in ?
A . Tuberculosis
B . Syphilis
C . Diphtheria
D . Typhoid
E . Cholera
50 ) The most frequent symptom of ectopic pregnancy ?
A . Dizziness
B . Vaginal bleeding
C . Abdominal pain
D . Collapse
E . Frequency of micturition
51 ) At 22 weeks gestation , with uterine size of 26 weeks . All of the following are possible causes except ?
A . Oligohydramnios
B . Wrong date
C . Gestational diabetes
D . Full bladder
E . Uterine fibroids
52 ) Polyhydramnios may be caused by all of the following except ?
A . Duodenal atresia
B . Neural tube defect
C . Diabetes mellitus
D . Parvovirus B19 infection
E . Renal agenesis
53 ) Relationship of the long axis of the fetus to that of the mother is called ?
A . Presentation
B . Lie
C . Attitude
D . Posture
E . Engagement
54 ) One of the following is not sexually transmitted disease ?
A . Herpes simplex
B . Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C . Chancroid
D . Bacterial vaginosis
E . Trichomonas vaginalis
55 ) All of the following vaccines can be given to a pregnant women except ?
A . Tetanus toxoid vaccine
B . Inactivated polio vaccine
C . Rabies vaccine
D . Pneumococcal vaccine
E . Chickenpox vaccine
56 ) In placenta previa , only one is true ?
A . Vaginal examination is safe .
B . Abdominal ultrasound is not accurate .
C . Uterus is tender on palpation .
D . High incidence of IUFD .
E . High risk of postpartum hemorrhage
57 ) We say the fetus has tachycardia , when the base line is above ?
A . 150
B . 160
C . 170
D . 180
E . 190
58 ) The commonest cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage ?
A . Retained product of conception .
B . Uterine atony .
C . Upper genital tract laceration .
D . Uterine rupture .
E . Coagulopathy .
59 ) Regarding bacterial vaginosis , all are true except ?
A . Is commonly caused by Lactobacillus .
B . Increased risk with vaginal douches use .
C . Increase the risk of second trimester miscarriage .
D . Vaginal PH > 5 .
E . Metronidazole is the drug of choice .
60 ) In Disseminated intravascular coagulation , all of the following tests would be increased levels except ?
A . Whole blood clotting time
B . Fibrinogen level
C . Fibrin degradation products
D . Prothrombin time
E . Thrombin time
61 ) The most significant risk factor for Abruptio placentae is ?
A . Trauma
B . Polyhydramnios
C . Short cord
D . Preeclampsia
E . Chorioamnionitis
62 ) All of the following increase during normal pregnancy except ?
A . Cardiac output
B . White blood cells
C . Peripheral vascular resistance
D . Heart rate
E . Red cell mass
63 ) The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is ?
A . Ampullary part of fallopian tube .
B . Isthmic portion of fallopian tube .
C . Cervix .
D . Abdominal ectopic pregnancy .
E . Ovary .
64 ) The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is ?
A . Endometrial cancer
B . Endometrial polyps
C . Endometrial hyperplasia
D . Cervical cancer
E . Atrophic vaginitis
65 ) Regarding ultrasound examination in the third trimester , all of the following are correct except ?
A . Can diagnose placenta previa .
B . Can diagnose Oligohydramnios .
C . Can diagnose fetal anomalies .
D . Can diagnose fetal Macrosomia .
E . Can accurately estimate the expected day of delivery .
66 ) Apgar score parameters include all of the following except ?
A . Respiratory rate
B . Pulse rate
C . Response to stimuli
D . Colour
E . Tone
67 ) All of the following are indications for cesarean section except ?
A . Cord prolapse .
B . Previous 2 cesarean section .
C . Transverse lie in labor .
D . Occipitoposterior position .
E . Breech presentation .
68 ) All of the following should be performed in a 45 years old patient with menorrhagia except ?
A . Mammogram .
B . Bimanual pelvic examination .
C . Pelvic ultrasound .
D . Cervical smear .
E . Dilation and curettage .
69 ) Which of the following conditions can be diagnosed with a hysterosalpingogram ?
A . Endometriosis .
B . Hydrosalpinx .
C . Subserosal fibroids .
D . Minimal pelvic adhesions .
E . Ovarian cyst .
70 ) All of the following combinations are correct except ?
A . Uterine atony _ B lynch suture .
B . Retained pieces of placenta _ secondary postpartum hemorrhage .
C . Instrumental delivery _ laceration .
D . Distended bladder _ uterine atony .
E . Epidural analgesia _ uterine atony .
71 ) Regarding hydatidiform mole , all of the following are true except ?
A . There is no fetal tissue in partial mole .
B . Malignant sequel should be treated promptly .
C . Oral contraceptive is safe during post treatment monitoring .
D . B HCG is a reliable tumor marker for treatment monitoring .
E . Prominent theca lutein cysts ( > 6 cm ) regress with chemotherapy .
72 ) Regarding primary postpartum hemorrhage , one is correct ?
A . Active management of third stage of labor reduce the incidence .
B . Coagulation defect is the most common cause .
C . Uterine massage often induce lasting uterine contractions .
D . Pulmonary embolism is the commonest cause of coagulation defect .
E . Primigravida is at increased risk of uterine atony .
73 ) The fetal heart in breech presentation at term is heard ?
A . At the umbilicus .
B . Above the umbilicus in the side of fetal back .
C . Above the umbilicus in the opposite side of fetal back .
D . Below the umbilicus in the side of fetal back .
E . Below the umbilicus in the opposite side of fetal back .
74 ) A 27 years old lady come to your clinic at gestation of 13 weeks , she is a known case of mild HTN . Blood pressure 150/100 . One of the following is the drug of choice for her HTN ?
A . ACE _ i
B . CCB
C . Methyldopa
D . Hydralazine
E . Diuretics
75 ) A 30 years old multiparous woman is found to have a 5 cm simple cyst in one ovary . The most appropriate line of management would be ?
A . Laparotomy and cystectomy .
B . Laparotomy and unilateral salpingo _ oophorectomy .
C . Laparoscopic aspiration of the cyst .
D . Observation to see if it disappears by it self in three months .
E . Hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo _ oophorectomy .
A) Regular ANC can prevent hydrops fetalis .
B) Regular ANC can minimize the risk of Post term pregnancies .
C) Pelvic examination is done routinely .
D) Mother's who are seronegative for rubella should be immunized after delivery .
E) Screening for GBS reduces the risk of neonatal sepsis .
2) Principles of the management of septic abortion include all of the following except
A) Cervical swab for culture
B) IV antibiotics
C) Correction of hypovolemia
D) Immediate evacuation of the uterus
E) Cross matching for 2 units of blood .
3) Large for date uterus include all of the following except
A) Multiple gestation
B) Polyhydramnios
C) Breech presentation
D) Uterine fibroids
E) Wrong dates
4) All of the following are side effects of progesterone only contraceptive pills except
A) Irregular menstrual cycle
B) Complex ovarian cyst
C) Breast tenderness
D) Acne
E) Weight gain
5) 25 years old woman presented with fever , lower abdominal pain and tenderness , diagnosis of PID is confirmed by
A) Detection of gonococci in an endocervical swab
B) Leucocytosis
C) Presence of adnexal mass
D) Laparoscopy
E) Ultrasonography
6) The following conditions may be associated with diabetes except
A) HTN
B) Fetal anal atresia
C) Fetal encephalocele
D) Postmaturity
E) VSD
7) Regarding radiologic evaluation of patient with uterine fibroid . All of the following tests are helpful except
A) Computed tomography
B) MRI
C) Hystersalpingogram
D) Ultrasound scan
E) Plain X Ray
8) Alpha fetoprotein is the tumor marker for which ovarian tumor
A) Endodermal sinus tumor
B) Epithelial tumors
C) Granulosa cell tumor
D) Dysgerminoma
E) Choriocarcinoma
9) Which of the following is a contraindicated to the use of the tocolytic Ritodrine
A) ROM
B) Fetal age less than 32 weeks
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Uterine anomalies
E) Breech presentation
10) Regarding infertility all are essential investigations except
A) Laparoscopy
B) Progesterone day 21
C) Hystersalpingogram
D) Semen fluid analysis
E) CBC
11) Regarding clomiphene citrate , only one of the following statements are correct
A) Decreases pituitary gonadotrophin secretion
B) Give IM
C) May cause ovarian hyperstimulation
D) Ideally should be used for more 12 months
E) It competes with progesterone receptors in the high centers
12) All of the following give good support to genital tract organs except
A) Transverse cervical ligaments
B) Levator ani muscles
C) Uterosacral ligaments
D) Pelvic floor fascia
E) Round ligaments
13) Regarding Endometrial cancer , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Rarely occur before the age of 40
B) Adenocarcinoma is the commonest type
C) Usually present with postmenopausal bleeding
D) The diagnosis may be suspected by abnormal pap smear
E) Usually advanced stage at the time of diagnosis
14) PCOS only one statement is correct
A) Is Ultrasonographically present in about 20% of premenopausal women
B) Is characterized by increased sensitivity to insulin
C) Is the commonest cause of premature menopause
D) Is associated with a negative progesterone challenge test
E) Commonly causes hyperprolactinemia
15) Regarding Puerperal breast abscess , all of the following are correct except
A) Staphylococcus aureus is the commonest infecting organism
B) Segmental parts of the breast affected
C) Surgical incision is necessary
D) Antibiotics should be given
E) Is usually diagnosed by mammogram
16) Breech presentation with flexed hips and extended knees is called
A) Complete
B) Frank
C) Footling
D) Incomplete
E) True
17) Regarding Pap smear test , all of the following are correct except
A) Is a screening test for cervical cancer
B) Is a cytologic examination of the exfoliated cells from the cervix
C) The false negative rate can reach 20% for preinvasive disease
D) It should not be performed in the bleeding phase of menstrual cycle
E) Application of 3% acetic acid to the cervix before sample collection increased false positive result
18) Factors that increase the risk of thromboembolism in pregnancy , include all of the following except
A) Suppression of lactation with oestrogen
B) Prolonged hospital stay
C) Induction of labour
D) Cardiac disease
E) Thrombophilia
19) Twin pregnancy is associated with increase risk of all of the following except
A) Iron deficiency
B) Abnormal lie
C) Fetal anomalies
D) Prolonged pregnancy
E) Preeclampsia
20) 20 weeks pregnant discovered to have low lying placenta on routine ultrasound scan , your action will be
A) Admit to the hospital
B) Give steroids
C) Repeat USS examination at 28 weeks
D) Advice the patient regarding cesarean delivery
E) Repeat USS weekly
21) Predisposing factors to developing stress incontinence include all of the following except
A) Grand _Multiparty
B) Post_menopausal
C) Spinal disc prolapse
D) Previous pelvic surgery
E) Prolonged second stage of labour
22) Regarding cervical incompetence , only one of the following is correct
A) Is a common cause of first trimester abortion
B) Can only be diagnosed by clinical history
C) Commonly occur following multiple pregnancy
D) May be congenital
E) Requires a cervical cerclage before 10 weeks gestation
23) Induction of labour is contraindicated in all the following except
A) Placenta praevia
B) Abnormal antenatal CTG
C) Cervical carcinoma
D) Fetal growth restriction
E) Transverse lie
24) Fetal hyperinsulinemia causes increase growth of the following tissue except
A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Brain
D) Subcutaneous fat
E) Muscles
25) Regarding induction of labour , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Postdate is the commonest indication
B) Oxytocin is used for induction in unfavorable cervix
C) Is contraindicated in active genital herpes infection
D) Artificial ROM is used for induction in favourable cervix
E) Is indicated in about 15% of all deliveries
26) Regarding preeclampsia / eclampsia , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Nulliparity is the most common risk factor
B) Increases the risk of placental Abruptio
C) The most common cause of fetal death is prematurity
D) Mild preeclampsia is symptomless
E) Associated with fetal macrosomia
27) Regarding menopause , one of the following is correct
A) The average age of menopause is 53 years
B) HRT are used mainly to treat vasomotor symptoms
C) Below the age of 45 is called premature menopause
D) The age of menopause in a premenopausal hysterectomiesed patient is around 53 years
E) Patient with breast cancer will go into early menopause
28) All of the following are indications for anti_D administration except
A) Artificial ROM
B) Antepartum hemorrhage
C) External cephalic version
D) Cordocentesis
E) Manual removal of placenta
29) Factors that increase the risk of genital prolapse , include all of the following except
A) Hysterectomy
B) Forceps delivery
C) Prolonged labour
D) Chronic constipation
E) Repeat cesarean section
30) Regarding abortion , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Ovulation can occur 2 week after abortion
B) Ultrasound is not essential for the diagnosis of missed abortion
C) Abortion occurs in 15% of pregnancies
D) In threatened abortion , 20% will progressive into the loss of the fetus
E) In inevitable abortion the cervix is dilated
31) Regarding Vulvovaginal candidiasis , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Is mainly due to candida albicans
B) May be associated with dysparaunia
C) The vulva is usually healthy looking
D) Culture is diagnostic
E) Increase risk with cephalosporines use
32) Regarding lactation , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Human milk contains less protein than cow's milk
B) Controlled by Prolactin
C) Can be suppressed by bromocriptine
D) Can be continue for up to 4 years
E) It is maintained by HPL
33) Prenatal workup of one of your patient , you discovered is rubella non immunized . What is the best time to vaccinate her
A) At least 8 week post partum
B) In the second trimester
C) in the third trimester
D) In the early postpartum period
E) In the first trimester
34) One of the following procedures is useful toward making a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy
A) Serum C_reactive protein
B) Urinary progesterone level _ 24 hours collection
C) Abdominal X_Ray
D) Hysteroscopy
E) Laparoscopy
35) Regarding preterm premature ROM , all of the following are suggestive chorioamnionitis except
A) Maternal tachycardia
B) Maternal fever
C) Uterus smaller than date
D) Raised WBC count
E) Greenish vaginal discharge
36) Regarding heparin , all of the following statements are correct except
A) The specific antidote is protamine sulphate
B) Is contraindicated during lactation
C) Monitored by PTT
D) Is safe during the first trimester
E) Can cause Thrombocytopenia
37) Investigations for recurrent abortion May include all of the following except
A) Transvaginal ultrasound
B) Thrombophilia screening
C) TORCH screen
D) Parental karyotyping
E) Hysteroscopy
38) All of the following should be performed in a 45 years old patient with menorrhagia except
A) Mammogram
B) Bimanual pelvic examination
C) Pelvic ultrasound
D) Cervical smear
E) Dilatation and curettage
39) The denominator in face presentation
A) Occipit
B) Sinciput
C) Chin
D) Nose
E) Maxilla
40) Causes of lower abdominal pain at 10 weeks of pregnancy , include all of the following except
A) Acute appendicitis
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Spontaneous abortion
D) Sickle cell disease
E) Acute polyhydramnios
41) The most common cause of secondary postpartum hemorrhage
A) Uterine fibroids
B) Coagulation defect
C) Trauma to genital tract
D) Infection
E) Abnormal arterio_venous formation
42) Regarding puerperium , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Lochia rubra is seen in the first few days
B) Lochia serosa is seen up to the 2 week
C) Lochia alba is seen after the 2 week
D) Uterus returns to the pelvis after 2 week
E) Uterus returns to the normal size after 6 weeks
43) Regarding epidural analgesia , all of the following statements are correct except
A) Has greater pain relief efficacy compared with parenteral Opioids
B) Contraindicated in women with IUGR baby
C) Can be used for patient with multiple pregnancies
D) IV infusion of crystalloid prior to insertion of epidural is essential
E) Contraindicated in patient with coagulation disorders
44) All of the following diseases are transmitted by contact ( direct, indirect, droplet ) except
A) Anthrax
B) Ascariasis
C) Chickenpox
D) Gonorrhea
E) Smallpox
45) Regarding UTI in pregnancy , all of the following statements are correct except
A) E coli is the commonest causative organism
B) Cure should be confirmed in all cases by repeat urine culture
C) Pyelonephritis is commoner in the right side
D) Treatment of asymptomatic bacteruria reduce the risk of Pyelonephritis significantly
E) All women with simple Pyelonephritis should be investigated by renal ultrasound
46) The most significant single factor of fetal mortality in twin pregnancy
A) Polyhydramnios
B) Hypertensive disorders
C) Fetal abnormalities
D) Premature labour
E) Antepartum hemorrhage
47) One of the following tests is useful to test for ovulation if performed in middle menstrual cycle
A) Plasma oestriol
B) HCG
C) LH surge
D) Serum progesterone
E) FSH level
48) A 36 years old, in her first pregnancy with twin pregnancy at term is
A) G1P2
B) G2P2
C) G2P1
D) G1P1
E) G1P0
49 ) Transplacental transmission occurs in ?
A . Tuberculosis
B . Syphilis
C . Diphtheria
D . Typhoid
E . Cholera
50 ) The most frequent symptom of ectopic pregnancy ?
A . Dizziness
B . Vaginal bleeding
C . Abdominal pain
D . Collapse
E . Frequency of micturition
51 ) At 22 weeks gestation , with uterine size of 26 weeks . All of the following are possible causes except ?
A . Oligohydramnios
B . Wrong date
C . Gestational diabetes
D . Full bladder
E . Uterine fibroids
52 ) Polyhydramnios may be caused by all of the following except ?
A . Duodenal atresia
B . Neural tube defect
C . Diabetes mellitus
D . Parvovirus B19 infection
E . Renal agenesis
53 ) Relationship of the long axis of the fetus to that of the mother is called ?
A . Presentation
B . Lie
C . Attitude
D . Posture
E . Engagement
54 ) One of the following is not sexually transmitted disease ?
A . Herpes simplex
B . Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C . Chancroid
D . Bacterial vaginosis
E . Trichomonas vaginalis
55 ) All of the following vaccines can be given to a pregnant women except ?
A . Tetanus toxoid vaccine
B . Inactivated polio vaccine
C . Rabies vaccine
D . Pneumococcal vaccine
E . Chickenpox vaccine
56 ) In placenta previa , only one is true ?
A . Vaginal examination is safe .
B . Abdominal ultrasound is not accurate .
C . Uterus is tender on palpation .
D . High incidence of IUFD .
E . High risk of postpartum hemorrhage
57 ) We say the fetus has tachycardia , when the base line is above ?
A . 150
B . 160
C . 170
D . 180
E . 190
58 ) The commonest cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage ?
A . Retained product of conception .
B . Uterine atony .
C . Upper genital tract laceration .
D . Uterine rupture .
E . Coagulopathy .
59 ) Regarding bacterial vaginosis , all are true except ?
A . Is commonly caused by Lactobacillus .
B . Increased risk with vaginal douches use .
C . Increase the risk of second trimester miscarriage .
D . Vaginal PH > 5 .
E . Metronidazole is the drug of choice .
60 ) In Disseminated intravascular coagulation , all of the following tests would be increased levels except ?
A . Whole blood clotting time
B . Fibrinogen level
C . Fibrin degradation products
D . Prothrombin time
E . Thrombin time
61 ) The most significant risk factor for Abruptio placentae is ?
A . Trauma
B . Polyhydramnios
C . Short cord
D . Preeclampsia
E . Chorioamnionitis
62 ) All of the following increase during normal pregnancy except ?
A . Cardiac output
B . White blood cells
C . Peripheral vascular resistance
D . Heart rate
E . Red cell mass
63 ) The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is ?
A . Ampullary part of fallopian tube .
B . Isthmic portion of fallopian tube .
C . Cervix .
D . Abdominal ectopic pregnancy .
E . Ovary .
64 ) The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is ?
A . Endometrial cancer
B . Endometrial polyps
C . Endometrial hyperplasia
D . Cervical cancer
E . Atrophic vaginitis
65 ) Regarding ultrasound examination in the third trimester , all of the following are correct except ?
A . Can diagnose placenta previa .
B . Can diagnose Oligohydramnios .
C . Can diagnose fetal anomalies .
D . Can diagnose fetal Macrosomia .
E . Can accurately estimate the expected day of delivery .
66 ) Apgar score parameters include all of the following except ?
A . Respiratory rate
B . Pulse rate
C . Response to stimuli
D . Colour
E . Tone
67 ) All of the following are indications for cesarean section except ?
A . Cord prolapse .
B . Previous 2 cesarean section .
C . Transverse lie in labor .
D . Occipitoposterior position .
E . Breech presentation .
68 ) All of the following should be performed in a 45 years old patient with menorrhagia except ?
A . Mammogram .
B . Bimanual pelvic examination .
C . Pelvic ultrasound .
D . Cervical smear .
E . Dilation and curettage .
69 ) Which of the following conditions can be diagnosed with a hysterosalpingogram ?
A . Endometriosis .
B . Hydrosalpinx .
C . Subserosal fibroids .
D . Minimal pelvic adhesions .
E . Ovarian cyst .
70 ) All of the following combinations are correct except ?
A . Uterine atony _ B lynch suture .
B . Retained pieces of placenta _ secondary postpartum hemorrhage .
C . Instrumental delivery _ laceration .
D . Distended bladder _ uterine atony .
E . Epidural analgesia _ uterine atony .
71 ) Regarding hydatidiform mole , all of the following are true except ?
A . There is no fetal tissue in partial mole .
B . Malignant sequel should be treated promptly .
C . Oral contraceptive is safe during post treatment monitoring .
D . B HCG is a reliable tumor marker for treatment monitoring .
E . Prominent theca lutein cysts ( > 6 cm ) regress with chemotherapy .
72 ) Regarding primary postpartum hemorrhage , one is correct ?
A . Active management of third stage of labor reduce the incidence .
B . Coagulation defect is the most common cause .
C . Uterine massage often induce lasting uterine contractions .
D . Pulmonary embolism is the commonest cause of coagulation defect .
E . Primigravida is at increased risk of uterine atony .
73 ) The fetal heart in breech presentation at term is heard ?
A . At the umbilicus .
B . Above the umbilicus in the side of fetal back .
C . Above the umbilicus in the opposite side of fetal back .
D . Below the umbilicus in the side of fetal back .
E . Below the umbilicus in the opposite side of fetal back .
74 ) A 27 years old lady come to your clinic at gestation of 13 weeks , she is a known case of mild HTN . Blood pressure 150/100 . One of the following is the drug of choice for her HTN ?
A . ACE _ i
B . CCB
C . Methyldopa
D . Hydralazine
E . Diuretics
75 ) A 30 years old multiparous woman is found to have a 5 cm simple cyst in one ovary . The most appropriate line of management would be ?
A . Laparotomy and cystectomy .
B . Laparotomy and unilateral salpingo _ oophorectomy .
C . Laparoscopic aspiration of the cyst .
D . Observation to see if it disappears by it self in three months .
E . Hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo _ oophorectomy .
Comments
Post a Comment