Obstetrics
· Pregnancy
1.
Diagnosis of
Pregnancy.
***) Signs and
symptoms of pregnancy in the 1st trimester include all of the
following, except:
A.
Nausea
B.
Quickening
C.
Frequency of micturition
D.
Soreness of breast
E.
Hegar's sign
Answer: B* Quickening
***) Which of the
following hormones is produced by trophoblast:
A.
Luteinizing hormone
B.
Follicle stimulating hormone
C.
Prolactin
D.
Human chorionic gonadotropin
E.
Oxytocin
Answer: D* Human
chorionic gonadotropin
***) Positive
pregnancy test in the urine depends on the presence of:
A.
Human chorionic gonadotropin
B.
Progesterone
C.
Estrogen
D.
Calcium
E.
Cortisol
Answer: A* Human
chorionic gonadotropin
***) A suspicion of
pregnancy at 3 wks GA may be confirmed by one of the following:
A.
History of morning sickness and nausea
B.
Vaginal examination
C.
Abdominal examination
D.
Immunological pregnancy test (hCG)
E.
Breast examination
Answer: D*
Immunological pregnancy test (hCG)
***) Which of the following hormones decreases
after the first trimester of pregnancy:
A.
Progesterone
B.
Prolactin
C.
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
D.
Human Placental Lactogen (HPL)
E.
Estrogen
Answer: C* Human
Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
2.
Pregnancy &
Physiological Changes.
***) All of the
following statements are true, except:
A.
The maximum weight increase in the uncomplicated
pregnancy is 12.5 kg
B.
The cardiac output has risen markedly by 40 percent
during pregnancy
C.
There is a slight increase of pulse rate about 15
percent
D.
There is a decrease in red cell mass
E.
Fibrinogen level increases during pregnancy
Answer: D* There is a
decrease in red cell mass
***) Regarding
cardiovascular system in normal pregnancy, the following are increased except:
A.
Heart rate
B.
Stroke volume
C.
Plasma volume
D.
Hematocrit
E.
Red blood cells
Answer: D* Hematocrit
***) Blood volume is
increased from the total volume during pregnancy at near term by about:
A.
10%
B.
20%
C.
25%
D.
45%
E.
100%
Answer: D*45%
***) Regarding supine
hypotension one of the following is true:
A.
Pressure of the gravid uterus on the aorta
B.
Pressure of the gravid uterus on vena cava inferior
C.
Pressure of the gravid uterus on vena cava superior
D.
Constipation during pregnancy
E.
Excessive heart burn
Answer: B* Pressure of
the gravid uterus on vena cava inferior
***) In pregnancy
concerning maternal blood the following are correct, except:
A.
Plasma transcortin concentration increase
B.
Free cortisol concentration increase
C.
Thyroxin binding globulin concentration increase
D.
Free thyroxin index increase
E.
Release of TSH is not increased
Answer: D* Free
thyroxin index increase
***) In the normal
pregnancy all of the following increase, except:
A.
Plasma volume
B.
Hepatic blood flow
C.
Platelet count
D.
White cells count
E.
Cardiac output
Answer: C* Platelet
count
***) Pregnancy leads
to one of the following:
A.
Prolongation of stomach emptying time and increased
acidity
B.
Shortening of stomach emptying time and increased
acidity
C.
Shortening of stomach emptying time and decreased
acidity
D.
Prolongation of stomach emptying time and no affection
of acidity
E.
Prolongation of stomach emptying time and decrease
acidity
Answer: E*
Prolongation of stomach emptying time and decrease acidity
***) All of the
following occur in alimentary tract during pregnancy, except:
A.
The gums become swollen
B.
Excessive salivation may occur
C.
Heartburn (reflux esophagitis) is common
D.
The stomach tends to empty more rapidly
E.
Slow peristalsis of the bowel
Answer: D* The stomach
tends to empty more rapidly
***) The cause of
heartburn in pregnancy is:
A.
Increased gastric motility
B.
Increased vagal nerve activity
C.
Gastro-esophageal reflux
D.
Duodeno-gastric reflux
E.
Increased gastric emptying
Answer: C*
Gastro-esophageal reflux
***) Breast tissue of
2mm nodule is normal for which gestational age:
A.
28 weeks
B.
36 weeks
C.
40 weeks
D.
42 weeks
E.
44 weeks
Answer: A* 28 weeks
· Prenatal
Care
1.
Prenatal Visits.
***) All of the
following are aims of antenatal care, except:
A.
To monitor the well being of the fetus
B.
To establish and maintain the physical health of the
mother
C.
The ideal time for first antenatal visit is before 14
weeks of pregnancy
D.
Screening for fetal congenital abnormality
E.
Screening for endometrial carcinoma
Answer: E* Screening
for endometrial carcinoma
***) The embryonic
life starts at:
A.
The 3rd week after ovulation
B.
The 5th week after ovulation
C.
The 7th week after ovulation
D.
The 9th week after ovulation
E.
The 11th week after ovulation
Answer: C* The 7th
week after ovulation
***) All of the
following factors may reduce intrauterine death of the fetus, except:
A.
Proper antenatal care
B.
Localization of placenta in the first trimester
C.
Antenatal fetal monitoring
D.
Correct timing of delivery
E.
Prevention of prematurity
Answer: B*
Localization of placenta in the first trimester
***) In preventing
anemia during pregnancy the ideal oral iron compound is:
A.
20 mg of iron
B.
100 mg of iron
C.
200 mg of iron
D.
400 mg of iron
E.
1000 mg of iron
Answer: A*20 mg of
iron
***) All of the
following are ideal routine blood tests carried out at first visit to an
antenatal clinic, except:
A.
Blood grouping and rhesus
B.
Hemoglobin
C.
Serological tests for syphilis
D.
Rubella antibodies
E.
Renal functional tests
Answer: E* Renal
functional tests
***) All of the
following are restriction on coitus during pregnancy, except:
A.
Threatened abortion
B.
History of premature labor
C.
History of post partum hemorrhage
D.
History of ante partum hemorrhage
E.
When membranes are ruptured
Answer: C* History of
post partum hemorrhage
***) Abdominal
palpation in the latter half of pregnancy reveals all of the following, except:
A.
The fundal height
B.
The lie of the fetus
C.
Cephalo-pelvic disproportion
D.
The presentation of the fetal cephalic or breech
E.
Whether the presenting part in engaged or not
Answer: C*
Cephalo-pelvic disproportion
***) At 16 weeks of
pregnancy, the uterine fundus is felt at:
A.
Just above the pubic margin
B.
At the level of umbilicus
C.
Midway between umbilicus and pubic margin
D.
2 cm above the pubis
E.
2 cm above the umbilicus
Answer: C* Midway
between umbilicus and pubic margin
***) At 14 weeks
pregnancy a uterus may felt large for dates because of the following, except:
A.
Wrong dates
B.
Uterine fibroid
C.
Full bladder
D.
Polyhydramnios
E.
Multiple pregnancy
Answer: C* Full
bladder
***) A large for date
uterus may be due to all of the following conditions, except:
A.
Multiple pregnancy
B.
Hydatidiform mole
C.
Oligohydramnios
D.
Uterine fibroid with pregnancy
E.
Error in dates
Answer: C*
Oligohydramnios
***) Causes of large
for date pregnancies are the following, except:
A.
Multiple pregnancy
B.
Polyhydramnios
C.
Hydatiform mole
D.
Intrauterine fetal death
E.
Diabetes with pregnancy
Answer: D*
Intrauterine fetal death
***) The following
factors may lead to wrong dates of delivery, except:
A.
An irregular cycle
B.
Regular cycles but in excess of 28 days (35-42 days)
C.
Regular cycles of 28 days
D.
Patient's poor memory
E.
Breast feeding
Answer: C* Regular
cycles of 28 days
***) To reduce the
risk of recurrence of neural tube defects in a woman planning to get pregnancy,
she should be advised to take:
A.
Iron tablets 20 mg/day
B.
Calcium tablets 1 gm/day
C.
Vitamin E 200 mg/day
D.
Vitamin B complex
E.
Folic acid tablets 4 mg/day
Answer: E* Folic acid
tablets 4 mg/day
***) Counseling of a
pregnant woman during antenatal care should include advice and education on all
of the following except one:
A.
Smoking
B.
Alcohol abuse
C.
Drug abuse
D.
Avoiding infection
E.
Water consumption
Answer: E* Water
consumption
***) The last
menstrual period for a lady was June 30, the expected date of delivery is
approximately:
A.
March 23rd
B.
April 7th
C.
March 28th
D.
April 23rd
E.
March 7th
Answer: B* April 7th
2.
Prenatal Screening.
***) The most
sensitive prognostic test in Rh-disease of pregnancy is:
A.
Antibody titer
B.
Past history
C.
Spectrophotometric examination of the amniotic fluid
D.
Urinary bilirubin level
E.
Fetal movements
Answer: C*
Spectrophotometric examination of the amniotic fluid
***) Indication of
anti-D administration to Rh-negative mothers married to Rh-positive husbands
includes all the following except:
A.
Following abortion
B.
Following delivery of Rh-negative baby
C.
At 28 weeks of gestation
D.
Following ectopic pregnancy
E.
Following amniocentesis
Answer: B* Following
delivery of Rh-negative baby
***) All of the
following are indications for anti-D-gamma-globulin administration, except:
A.
Abortion caused by blighted ovum
B.
Abortion secondary to cervical incompetence
C.
After amniocentesis
D.
After attacks of ante partum hemorrhage
E.
To Rh-negative unsensitized mother giving birth to
Rh-positive fetus
Answer: A* Abortion
caused by blighted ovum
***) Regarding the
prevention of Rh-isoimmunization, all the following are true except:
A.
All Rh-negative women should marry Rh-negative
husbands
B.
Anti-D to be given at 28 weeks or 32 weeks for
pregnant patient with Rh-positive husband
C.
Anti-D to be given within 72 hours after delivery in a
patient with Rh-positive fetus
D.
Anti-D to be given in Rh-negative patients with
abortion (blighted ovum)
E.
Anti-D immunoglobulin causes severe neonatal jaundice
Answer: D* Anti-D to
be given in Rh-negative patients with abortion (blighted ovum)
***) The most common
cause of fetal death in uterus in Rh-isoimmunization is:
A.
Jaundice
B.
Heart failure
C.
Respiratory distress syndrome
D.
Congenital anomalies
E.
Kernicterus
Answer: E* Kernicterus
Prenatal Diagnosis.
***) The following
information may be obtained from aspiration of amniotic fluid in the 2nd
and 3rd trimester of pregnancy, except:
A.
Cytogenetics
B.
Fetal maturity
C.
Detection of neural tube defect by measurement of
alpha fetoprotein
D.
Polydactyly
E.
Rhesus disease
Answer: D* Polydactyly
***) Amniotic fluid is
used to check up all of the following, except:
A.
Chromosome analysis
B.
Neural tube defects
C.
Lung maturity of the fetus
D.
Fetal hemoglobin
E.
Inborn metabolic disease
Answer: E* Inborn
metabolic disease
***) Which one of the
following karyotyping is not matching:
A.
Normal male - 46 XY
B.
Turner syndrome - 45 XO
C.
Female Down syndrome - 47 XX, +21
D.
Female Edwards syndrome - 47 XX, +13
E.
Klinefelter syndrome - 47 XXY
Answer: D* Female
Edwards syndrome - 47 XX, +13(47xx + 18)
· Medical
Conditions in Pregnancy
1.
Iron Deficiency
Anemia.
***) The most common
anemia during pregnancy is:
A.
Iron deficiency anemia
B.
Pernicious anemia
C.
Sickle cell anemia
D.
Thalassemia
E.
Hemolytic anemia
Answer: A* Iron
deficiency anemia
***) Regarding iron
deficiency anemia in pregnancy, all the following are true except:
Is related to social class
Is very common in multiple
pregnancy
Is prevented with adequate diet
only
Can usually be treated with oral
iron
Is more common in multi parous
women
Answer: C*Is prevented
with adequate diet only
***) Factors causing
iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy are all of the following, except:
Sickle cell disease
Lack of iron supplements
Poor diet
Bleeding
Mal absorption
Answer: A* Sickle cell
disease
***) All of the
following are causes of iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy, except:
Inadequate iron in the diet
Excessive blood loss
Infrequent pregnancies
Abnormal demand as in multiple
pregnancy
Mal absorption
Answer: C* Infrequent
pregnancies
***) Effects of iron
deficiency anemia in pregnancy include all of the following, except:
Increased plasma volume
Increased cardiac output
Decreased peripheral resistance
Oxygen dissociation curve shifted
to the left
Heart failure may occur in severe
cases
Answer: D* Oxygen
dissociation curve shifted to the left
Folate Deficiency
Anemia.
***) Folic acid
deficiency during pregnancy may occur from the following, except:
Multiple pregnancies
Low HCl acid in the stomach
Grand multi-parous women
Poor diet
Anticonvulsant therapy in
epileptic pregnant women
Answer: B* Low HCl
acid in the stomach
***) In folic acid deficiency
during pregnancy the earliest changes are:
Erythrocyte macrocytosis
Megaloblastic anemia
Low concentration of serum folate
Increased urinary
formiminoglutamic acid (FIGLA)
Hypersegmentation of neutrophils
Answer: C* Low
concentration of serum folate
***) Megaloblastic
anemia in pregnancy is mainly due to:
Iron deficiency
Vitamin B12 deficiency
Folic acid deficiency
Vitamin B1 excess
Hypoxia
Answer: C* Folic acid
deficiency
Diabetes Mellitus
DM.
***) In a pregnant
patient with diabetes mellitus, all the following are true except:
Glucosuria is unreliable sign of
control
Insulin requirement usually
increases
Blood sugar should be maintained
at approximately 160 mg/dl
Persistent hyperglycemia is worse
than occasional hypoglycemia
Glycosylated Hb gives indication
of previous long-term blood sugar levels
Answer: C* Blood sugar
should be maintained at approximately 160 mg/dl
***) In diabetes
mellitus associated with pregnancy all of the following statements are true,
except:
There is higher risk of
congenital abnormality
There is higher risk of fetal
death during the last weeks of pregnancy
Usually insulin requirement is
increased
Delivery is always by caesarian
section
Stabilization of diabetes should
be done as early as possible during pregnancy
Answer: D* Delivery is
always by caesarian section
***) All of the
following are adverse effect of diabetes on pregnancy, except:
Increased risk of microsomia
Increased risk of placenta previa
Increased risk of abortion
Increased risk of congenital
abnormalities
Increased risk of candidial
vulvovaginitis
Answer: B* Increased
risk of placenta previa
***) All of the
following are effects of diabetes on pregnancy, except:
Pre-eclampsia
Intrauterine fetal death
Increased incidence of fetal congenital
abnormalities
Oligohydramnios
Shoulder dystocia
Answer: D*
Oligohydramnios
***) All of the
following are associated with complications in pregnant patient with diabetes
mellitus, except:
Maternal ketoacidosis
Intrauterine fetal death
Trichomonas infection
Polyhydramnios
Pre-eclamptic toxemia
Answer: C* Trichomonas
infection
***) Indications of
glucose tolerance test during pregnancy include all following, except:
Family history of diabetes
Renal glucosuria
Unexplained stillbirth
Polyhydramnios
Delivery of 4.5 kg baby
Answer: B* Renal
glucosuria
***) In a pregnant
patient with history of diabetes in both parents, the probability of abnormal
glucose metabolism is:
10%
25%
50%
75%
100%
Answer: C*50%
***) Which one of the following
contributes to good control of diabetes in pregnancy:
300 mg carbohydrate per day diet
Good control of protein intake
Oral hypoglycemic drugs in mild
cases
Twice daily mixture of short and
medium acting insulin
Bed rest in the last 3 months of
pregnancy
Answer: D* Twice daily
mixture of short and medium acting insulin
***) In diabetes with
pregnancy, there is an increased incidence of:
Traumatic delivery
Maternal death
Maternal head trauma
Normoglycemia
Delivery at home
Answer: A* Traumatic
delivery
Hypertension.
***) Pre-existing
raised blood pressure before pregnancy or in early pregnancy may be due to the
following, except:
Pre-eclampsia
Essential hypertension
Renal artery stenosis
Pheochromocytoma
Coarctation of aorta
Answer: A* Pre-eclampsia
***) Concerning
pregnancy induced hypertension, all the following are true except:
Common in women with diabetes
mellitus
Treatment includes furosemide
(Lasix)
Albuminuria is due to this
condition
Delivery usually cure this
condition
Will recur in 30% of cases in
subsequent pregnancies
Answer: B* Treatment
includes furosemide (Lasix)
***) Concerning
gestational hypertension, all the following are true except:
The blood pressure rises all
through pregnancy
The blood pressure decreases few
days after delivery
The hypertension is not
necessarily to be associated with proteinuria
The pregnancy should not exceed
more than 40 weeks
The blood pressure rises in the
third trimester
Answer: A* The blood
pressure rises all through pregnancy
***) One of the
following statements regarding pregnancy induced hypertension is true:
Can be relieved by use of
diuretics
Post partum pregnancy induced
hypertension is the most dangerous
Relief of pregnancy induced
hypertension is achieved by anti-tetanus toxoid
Death of the fetus is usually
followed by complete improvement
Fetus is usually large for date
Answer: B* Post partum
pregnancy induced hypertension is the most dangerous
Eclampsia and Pre-eclampsia.
***) All of the
following conditions are more likely to be associated with pre-eclampsia,
except:
Multiparity
Multiple pregnancy
Chronic kidney disease
Diabetes mellitus
Vesicular mole
Answer: A* Multiparity
***) The following
conditions are associated with high frequency of pre-eclampsia, except:
Diabetes
Multiple
pregnancy
Polyhydramnios
Hydatiform
mole
Placenta previa
Answer: C*
Polyhydramnios
***) The following
statements regarding ante partum pre-eclampsia toxemia are true, except:
Treatment with diuretics is of
great value
Primary treatment with diazoxide
is contraindicated
Plasma uric acid level is
elevated
Materno-placental blood flow
falls to less than 50%
There is increased incidence of
PET in future pregnancies
Answer: A* Treatment
with diuretics is of great value
***) The following
about a patient developing proteinuric hypertension (pre-eclampsia) in
pregnancy are true, except:
Serum uric acid concentration
increases
The plasma volume decreases
Placental function tests values
decrease
Hb concentration increases
Creatinine clearance increases
Answer: E* Creatinine
clearance increases
***) One of the
following is a grave sign of severe pre-eclampsia:
A PCV (Packed cell volume) of 55%
BP 160/100 mm HG
Proteinuria of 2 g/24h
Deep tendon reflex with 3+/4+
Edema of lower limbs up to the
knees
Answer: D* Deep tendon
reflex with 3+/4+
***) All the following
are symptoms or signs of impending eclampsia, except:
Severe headache
Polyuria
Epigastric pain
Exaggerated reflexes
Visual disturbances
Answer: B* Polyuria
***) Signs and
symptoms of impending eclampsia include all of following, except:
Headache
Sacral edema
Epigastric pain
Hyperreflexia
Blurring of vision
Answer: B* Sacral
edema
***) Signs of
fulminating pre-eclampsia include the following, except:
Hyperreflexia
Epigastric tenderness
Poor urine output
Maternal weight loss
Proteinuria
Answer: D* Maternal
weight loss
***) The usual manner
of death in case of eclampsia is:
Cerebral hemorrhage
Congestive heart failure
Cardiac arrest during convulsions
Uremia
Hemorrhagic pneumonia
Answer: A* Cerebral
hemorrhage
***) The complications
of pre-eclampsia include all of the following, except:
Abruption placenta
Polyhydramnios
Intrauterine growth retardation
Decreased renal blood flow
Abnormal liver enzymes
Answer: B*
Polyhydramnios
***) In a case of
pre-eclamptic toxemia at 40 weeks, the best management is:
Induction of labor
Cesarean section
Give methyldopa only
Give diuretics (Lasix) only
Give hydralazine only
Answer: A* Induction
of labor
***) The most
worrisome sign or symptom of serious pathology in late pregnancy is:
Swollen ankles
Constipation
Visual changes
Nocturia
Heartburn
Answer: C* Visual changes
Heart and Pregnancy.
***) Regarding changes
in the heart during pregnancy, all the following are true except:
Third sound
Diastolic murmur
Soft systolic murmur
Increased pulse rate
Slight displacement of the apex
Answer: B* Diastolic
murmur
***) Which of the
following signs is diagnostic of heart disease in pregnancy:
Diastolic heart murmur
Soft systolic heart murmur
Tachycardia
Arrhythmia
Accentuated first heart sound
Answer: A* Diastolic
heart murmur
***) Which of the
following physical signs is least likely to indicate organic heart disease in
pregnant woman:
Systolic murmur
Diastolic murmur
Atrial fibrillation
Cardiac enlargement
Palpation of a thrill
Answer: A* Systolic
murmur
***) The following are
factors which may lead to heart failure in patient with heart disease in
pregnancy, except:
Tachycardia
Emotional upset
Physical exercise
A systolic murmur
Lower limbs edema
Answer: D* A systolic
murmur
***) In a pregnant
patient with mitral stenosis, all the following are true except:
To have labor induced at 38 weeks
Sit upright in labor
Could be considered for mitral
valvotomy during pregnancy
Should not be given ergometrine
(oxytocin) in the third stage of labor
Should have elective forceps
delivery unless spontaneous delivery is very rapid
Answer: A* To have
labor induced at 38 weeks
***) Pregnancy is
contraindicated in all of the following conditions except:
Uncorrected atrial septal defect
Marfan's syndrome
Uncompensated cardiac failure
Eisenmenger's syndrome
Severe mitral stenosis
Answer: A* Uncorrected
atrial septal defect
Hyperemesis
Gravidarum HG.
***) Concerning
hyperemesis gravidarum, all the following are true except:
Usually occurs in the first
trimester
Is associated with hydatiform
mole
Is associated with multiple
pregnancy
Occurs most commonly in
multigravida
May require admission to the
hospital
Answer: D* Occurs most
commonly in multigravida
Jaundice in
Pregnancy.
***) The following may
cause jaundice during pregnancy, except:
Acute fatty atrophy of the liver
Viral hepatitis
Severe pre-eclampsia
Chlorpromazine
Erythromycin
Answer: D*
Chlorpromazine
Urinary Tract
Complications.
***) The likely organism to cause urinary tract
infection in pregnancy is:
Group B streptococcus
Klebsiella pneumonia
Chlamydia trachomatis
Proteus species
Escherichia coli
Answer: E* Escherichia
coli
***) Asymptomatic
bacteriuria means one of the following:
Urine contains more than 1,000
organisms per milliliter
Urine contains more than 2,000
organisms per milliliter
Urine contains more than 5,000
organisms per milliliter
Urine contains more than 10,000
organisms per milliliter
Urine contains more than 100,000
organisms per milliliter
Answer: E* Urine
contains more than 100,000 organisms per milliliter
***) Regarding acute
pyelonephritis with pregnancy, all the following are true except:
Right kidney is more affected
than the left
Temperature is usually over 39°C
Antibiotic should be started
before bacteriological results are available
The incidence of pre-term labor
is increased
Intravenous pyelography IVP
should be done promptly
Answer: E* Intravenous
pyelography IVP should be done promptly
***) In acute
pyelonephritis during pregnancy the most common causative organism is:
Pseudomonas
Klebsiella
E.Coli
Proteus
Shigella
Answer: C* E.Coli
***) The following
encourage pyelitis in pregnancy, except:
Urinary stasis
Abnormalities of the renal tract
Constipation
Dehydration
Diabetes
mellitus
Answer:
D* Dehydration
***) Management of
acute pyelonephritis during pregnancy includes all of the following, except:
Admission to the hospital
IV fluids
Antibiotics
Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
following delivery
Induction of labor
Answer: E* Induction
of labor
***) Pregnant patients
with chronic renal disease have an increased of all of the following, except:
Pre-eclampsia
Abortion
Stillbirth
Intrauterine growth retardation
Postmaturity
Answer: E* Postmaturity
***) All of the
following may cause proteinuria during pregnancy, except:
A result of contamination
Urinary tract infection
Pre-eclampsia
Cardiac disease in pregnancy
Varicose veins in pregnancy
Answer: E* Varicose
veins in pregnancy
***) All of the
following complications of urinary tract may occur during pregnancy, except:
Asymptomatic bacteriuria
Ureteric colic
Lower urinary tract infection is
uncommon
Hematuria due to varicose veins
in the bladder (hemangioma)
Acute urine retention
Answer: C* Lower
urinary tract infection is uncommon
***) Urinary estriol
during pregnancy is mainly derived from:
Fetal kidneys
Maternal kidneys
Fetal adrenals
Maternal adrenals
Maternal liver
Answer: C* Fetal
adrenals
***) An appropriate
choice of antibiotics therapy for urinary tract infection in 15 weeks pregnant
is:
Doxycycline
Tetracycline
Ciprofloxacin
Nitrofurantoin
Metronidazole
Answer:
D* Nitrofurantoin
Infections in
Pregnancy.
***) Treponema
pallidum is the cause for one of the following venereal diseases:
Chancroid
Condyloma
acuminata
Lymphogranuloma
venerum
Syphilis
Granuloma
inguinalis
Answer: D* Syphilis
***) Transplacental
transmission occurs in which of the following:
Shigella
Syphilis
Diphtheria
Typhoid
Cholera
Answer: B* Syphilis
***) All of the
following statements concerning congenital rubella infection are true, except:
Most congenital infection occur
during the first 8 weeks of pregnancy
Congenital infection includes
congenital cataract, patent ductus arteriosus and congenital deafness
If contracted during the last
trimester it will lead to intrauterine growth retardation
Gamma globulin given to the
mother offers protection against fetal damage
Congenital infection can lead to
fetal death or prematurity
Answer: D* Gamma
globulin given to the mother offers protection against fetal damage
***) The effects of
rubella on the fetus include the following, except:
Blindness
Deafness
Hutchinson teeth
Intrauterine growth retardation
Hepatosplenomegaly
Answer: C*Hutchinson
teeth
***) One of the
following viral diseases may cause cataract, deafness and heart lesion of
newborn:
Measles
Rubella
Coxsackie virus
Cytomegalic inclusion bodies
Herpes zoster
Answer: B* Rubella
***) In a patient
exposed to rubella infection in early pregnancy the proper management is:
To give rubella vaccine
To advise the patient to have
immediate termination
To give immunoglobulin and assure
the patient
To do rubella titre IgG, IgM and
repeat after two weeks
To ignore patient's complaint
Answer: D* To do
rubella titre IgG, IgM and repeat after two weeks
***) A patient has
been discharged following normal delivery, discharge counseling and would
include one of the following:
No driving for 4 weeks
No coitus for 6 weeks
Return to work only after 6 weeks
Rubella immunization for
non-immune patients
No place for breast feeding in
the puerperium
Answer: D* Rubella
immunization for non-immune patients
Deep Vein
Thrombosis.
***) In venous
thrombosis, all the following are true except:
Less common antenatally than in
puerperium
Require treatment with warfarin
at all stages of pregnancy
Is uncommon diagnosis during
pregnancy
Is frequently asymptomatic
Is more dangerous antenatally
than postnatal
Answer: B* Require
treatment with warfarin at all stages of pregnancy
***) The treatment of
choice of deep vein thrombosis during pregnancy is:
Aspirin
Bed rest and crepe bandage
Physiotherapy
Oral anticoagulants
Heparin
Answer: E* Heparin
Disseminated
Intravascular Coagulopathy.
***) Coagulation
defects in pregnancy occur with all of the following conditions, except:
Intrauterine fetal death
Placenta previa
Abruption placenta
Amniotic fluid embolism
Severe pre-eclampsia
Answer: B* Placenta
previa
***) Clinical
disseminated intravascular coagulopathy may occur in any of the following
conditions, except:
Missed abortion
Incomplete abortion
Amniotic fluid embolism
Septic abortion
Abruptio placenta (accidental
hemorrhage)
Answer: B* Incomplete
abortion
***) Disseminated
intravascular coagulation is characterized by all of the following, except:
Thrombocytopenia
High fibrinogen level
High levels of fibrinogen
degradation products
Bleeding tendency
Low PO2
Answer: B* High
fibrinogen level
***) Hypofibrinogenemia
is characterized by:
A failure of blood to clot in
vitro
Plasma fibrinogen of 500 mg
percent
Decreased platelets count
Decreased leukocytes mobility
A decrease in erythrocytes
Answer: A* A failure
of blood to clot in vitro
***) A major hazard of
fetal demise after 20 weeks is:
Increase in human chorionic
gonadotropin values
Systemic allergies
Bone marrow depression
Coagulopathy
Toxemia
Answer: D*
Coagulopathy
Maternal Risks in
Pregnancy.
***) All of the
following can be categorized as high risk pregnancy, except:
Diabetes mellitus
Hypertension disease
Mal presentation of the fetus
Previous cesarean section
Edema of the lower extremities
Answer: E* Edema of
the lower extremities
***) In early
pregnancy, lower abdominal pain could be caused by all the following, except:
Cystitis
Threatened abortion
Ectopic pregnancy
Mole pregnancy
Twisted ovarian cyst
Answer: D* Mole
pregnancy
***) All of the
following are the features of complication of grand multi-parous woman, except:
Iron deficient anemia
Increased incidence of antepartum
hemorrhage
Infertility
Ruptured uterus
Post partum hemorrhage
Answer: C* Infertility
***) The treatment of
choice in a patient with a cystocele during pregnancy is:
Anterior repair operation in the
first trimester
Repair 2 weeks after delivery
Anterior repair operation in the
second trimester
Immediate repair after delivery
of the placenta
Re-evaluation six weeks after
delivery
Answer: E*
Re-evaluation six weeks after delivery
Bleeding in
Pregnancy
First and Second
Trimester Bleeding.
***) Currently the
leading cause of maternal mortality is:
Hypertensive disorders of
pregnancy
Hemorrhage
Sepsis
Obstetric anesthesia
Instrumental delivery
Answer: B* Hemorrhage
***) Vaginal bleeding
in early pregnancy can be due to the following, except:
Early abortion
Threatened abortion
Ectopic pregnancy
Hydatidiform mole
Pregnancy with ovarian cyst
Answer: E* Pregnancy
with ovarian cyst
***) The most likely
cause of abnormal genital bleeding in a 22 year old woman is:
Cervical cancer
Anovulation
Uterine cancer
Systemic bleeding disease
Threatened abortion
Answer: E* Threatened
abortion
Third Trimester
Bleeding (Ante partum Hemorrhage).
***) All of the
following may cause ante-partum hemorrhage, except:
Placenta previa
Abruptio placenta
Vaginal varicose
Cervical carcinoma
Moniliasis
Answer: E* Moniliasis
***) 32 weeks
intrauterine pregnancy with mild vaginal bleeding, which appeared suddenly,
uterus is soft, good FSH, oblique lie, one of the following is the proper
management:
Vaginal examination with starting
of blood transfusion
Hospitalization, bed rest,
ultrasound exam, prepare blood
Immediate CS
Examination under anesthesia,
than rupture of membranes and oxytocin drip
Induction with prostaglandin
vaginal supports
Answer: B*
Hospitalization, bed rest, ultrasound exam, prepare blood
***) Mild painless
vaginal bleeding at 33 weeks of pregnancy should be treated by:
Artificial rupture of membranes
Expectant conservative treatment
Cesarean section
Immediate vaginal delivery
Pelvic examination
Answer: B* Expectant
conservative treatment
***) In ante-partum
hemorrhage fetal blood cells could be identified in one of the following
conditions:
Placenta circumvallate
Placenta marginalis
Placenta membranacea
Battledore insertion of the cord
Velamentous insertion of the cord
Answer: E* Velamentous
insertion of the cord
Spontaneous
Abortions.
***) In inevitable
abortion, all the following are true except:
The cervical os will be dilated
The pain is colicky in nature
The conceptual sac may be felt by
pelvic examination
Usually there is no vaginal
bleeding
The uterine size is compatible
Answer: D* Usually
there is no vaginal bleeding
***) One of the
following is true in a case of incomplete abortion:
The internal cervical os is
closed
The fetal heart activity is heard
Human chorionic gonadotropin
(hCG) injections should be given
The vaginal bleeding is painless
Evacuation of the uterus is
needed
Answer: E* Evacuation
of the uterus is needed
***) A major hazard of
missed abortion is:
Pulmonary embolism
Systemic allergies
Bone marrow depression
Coagulopathy
Toxemia
Answer: D*
Coagulopathy
***) All of the
following are signs of missed abortion, except:
Vaginal bleeding
Distorted gestational sac
Absence of fetal heart activity
Small for gestational age uterus
Absence of fetal movements
Answer: A* Vaginal
bleeding
***) In missed
abortion all of the following are true, except:
The uterus is larger than date
The uterus is smaller than date
The fetus is dead
Can cause coagulopathy
Menstruation does not occur
Answer: A* The uterus
is larger than date
***) The most common
type of bacteria present in septic abortion is:
E.Coli
Pseudomonas
Beta-hemolytic streptococcus
Bacteroids
Peptostreptococcus (anaerobic
streptococcus)
Answer Beta-hemolytic
streptococcus
***) The most common
cause of abortion in the 1st trimester is:
Physical trauma
Uterine retroversion
Abnormality of the conceptus
Systemic maternal infection
Incompetent cervix
Answer: C* Abnormality
of the conceptus
***) The most common
cause for 2nd trimester abortion is:
Fetal abnormality
Placental insufficiency
Incompetent cervix
Fibroid uterus
Rh isoimmunization
Answer: C* Incompetent
cervix
***) One of the
following is the commonest cause of vaginal bleeding during the first half of
pregnancy:
Hydatiform mole
Abruptio placenta
Ectopic pregnancy
Abortion
Placenta previa
Answer: D* Abortion
***) Criteria for
abortion due to cervical incompetence include all of the following, except:
First trimester abortion
Water before blood
Short and minimal labor pains
Cervix admits number 8 hegar
dilator
Barrel-shaped cervix by
H.salpingogram
Answer: A* First
trimester abortion
***) With cervical
incompetence, all the following are true except:
May be congenital
It is associated with previous
dilatation
It is associated with painless
premature labor
It is diagnosed by follicular
phase hysterography
It is common cause of second
trimester abortion
Answer: D* It is
diagnosed by follicular phase hysterography
***) If a patient who
has threatened abortion did not abort, the risk of the fetus being abnormal is:
The same as in patient without
bleeding
Slightly increased
Moderately increased
Markedly increased
99 to 100%
Answer: B* Slightly
increased
***) A 23 year old
lady G1P0, 6 weeks pregnant has developed bleeding over
the past 2 days. Which of the following is the likely cause of her bleeding:
Hydatidiform mole
Abruption placenta
Ectopic pregnancy
Abortion
Uterine rapture
Answer: D* Abortion
***) Therapy for
threatened abortion should include:
Progesterone injection
Dilatation and curettage
Prolonged bed rest
Restricted activity
Prostaglandins suppositories
Answer: D* Restricted
activity
***) Extrusion of an
abortus from the fimbriated end of the tube is called:
Spontaneous abortion
Delivery
Tubal abortion
Decidual cast
Aria-Stella phenomenon
Answer: C* Tubal
abortion
***) A 26 year old
woman whose last menstrual period was 2.5 months ago develops bleeding, uterine
cramps, and passes tissues per vagina. Two hours later she is still bleeding
heavily, the most likely diagnosis is:
Twin pregnancy
Threatened abortion
Inevitable abortion
Premature labor
Incomplete abortion
Answer: E* Incomplete
abortion
***) A 24 year old
woman, 10 weeks pregnant presented with vaginal bleeding, lower abdominal pain
and temperature 39.5 degrees and a history of introducing sharp object per
vagina for self abortion. The most likely diagnosis is:
Choriocarcinoma
Hydatidiform mole
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Septic abortion
Twisted ovarian cyst
Answer: D* Septic
abortion
***) Definitive
initial therapy in septic abortion is:
Curettage after antibiotics
Hysterectomy
Bed rest and antibiotics
Hysterotomy
Outpatient antibiotics
Answer: A* Curettage
after antibiotics
***) The treatment of
incomplete abortion in a patient of 10 weeks gestation is:
Administration of syntocinon only
Administration of ergometrine
only
Hysterectomy
Evacuation of the uterus
Prostaglandin vaginal pessary
Answer: D* Evacuation
of the uterus
***) The clinical
features of threatened abortion include all the following except:
Slight bleeding per vaginal
Size of the uterus corresponds to
period of amenorrhea
Mild abdominal pain
The cervix is closed
The cervix is opened
Answer: D* The cervix
is closed
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