Internal Medicine/ Cardiology
· Cardiology OXF.
I.
Common Cardiac Presentations.
1. Chest Pain.
***) Young
medical student complains of chest pain, palpitation, dyspnea, and feeling of
impending death. The symptoms occur every time when he is studying. The most
likely diagnosis is: Q2012
A.
Conversion
disorder
B.
Panic
attack
C.
Somatoform
disorder
D.
Hypochondriasis
E.
Syncope
Answer: B* Panic attack
***) All
of the following can cause chest pain, except:
A.
Angina
B.
Myocardial infarction
C.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D.
Pericarditis
E.
Dissecting aortic aneurysm
Answer: C* Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
2. Syncope.
***) Which
of the following is classical feature of cardiac syncope:
A.
Gradual onset
B.
Warning symptoms
C.
Rapid recovery
D.
Residual neurological deficit
E.
Precipitated by sudden turning of the head
Answer: C* Rapid recovery
3. Postural Hypotension.
***) All
of the following are causes of postural hypotension, except:
A.
Diabetes
B.
Hypovolemia
C.
Prolonged bed rest
D.
Addison's disease
E.
Hyperthyroidism
Answer: E* Hyperthyroidism
4. Pulses.
***) Collapsing
pulse is found in all of the following, except:
A.
Aortic regurgitation
B.
Patent ductus arteriosus
C.
Mitral stenosis
D.
Pregnancy
E.
Anemia
Answer: C* Mitral stenosis
5. Heart Murmurs.
***) One of
the following can cause pansystolic murmur: Q2012
A.
Coarctation
of the aorta
B.
Aortic
regurgitation
C.
Mitral
regurgitation
D.
Atrial
septal defect
E.
Aortic
stenosis
Answer: C* Mitral regurgitation
***) Diastolic
murmur occurs in all of the following conditions, except:
A.
Mitral stenosis
B.
Aortic stenosis
C.
Austin Flint murmur
D.
Graham-Steel murmur
E.
Aortic regurgitation
Answer: B* Aortic stenosis
***) All
of the following can cause systolic murmur, except:
A.
Aortic regurgitation
B.
Aortic stenosis
C.
Pulmonary stenosis
D.
Ventricular septal defect
E.
Mitral regurgitation
Answer: A* Aortic regurgitation
6. Cardiac Arrest.
***) In
cardiac arrest all of the following drugs may be used, except:
A.
Adrenaline
B.
Neostigmine
C.
Calcium chloride
D.
Isoprenaline
E.
Lignocaine
Answer: B* Neostigmine
II.
Cardiac Investigations.
1. ECG Abnormalities.
***) All
of the following are causes of sinus tachycardia, except:
A.
Fever
B.
Hypothyroidism
C.
Pregnancy
D.
Anemia
E.
Cardiac failure
Answer: B* Hypothyroidism
***) All
of the following may cause bradycardia, except:
A.
Myxedema
B.
Atenolol
C.
Raised intracranial pressure
D.
Jaundice
E.
Salbutamol
Answer: E* Salbutamol
***) Bradycardia
can be caused by all of the following, except:
A.
Digoxin
B.
Obstructive jaundice
C.
Anticholinergic drug
D.
Hypothyroidism
E.
Heart block
Answer: C* Anticholinergic drug
***) The
characteristic ECG finding in ventricular aneurysm is:
A.
Persistent ST depression
B.
Left bundle branch block
C.
Lack of Q waves
D.
First degree AV Block
E.
Persistent ST elevation
Answer: E* Persistent ST
elevation
2. ECG Additional Points.
***) Concerning
right ventricular hypertrophy all are true, except:
A.
It is a characteristic feature of transposition of great vessels
B.
It is a characteristic feature of tetralogy of Fallot
C.
It is a characteristic feature of tricuspid atresia
D.
It is diagnosed when R in V1 exceeds 20mm
E.
It is associated with plethoric lung fields
Answer: C* It is a characteristic
feature of tricuspid atresia
3. Exercise ECG Test.
***) All
of the following are contraindications of exercise electrocardiography, except:
A.
Recent myocardial infarction
B.
Unstable angina
C.
Diagnosis of chest pain
D.
Uncompensated heart failure
E.
Malignant hypertension
Answer: C* Diagnosis of chest pain
4. Cardiac Anatomy.
***) The
heart chamber that is situated most posterior is the:
A.
Right atrium
B.
Right ventricle
C.
Left atrium
D.
Left ventricle
E.
A+D
Answer: C* Left atrium
III.
Cardiovascular Drugs.
1. Beta-blockers.
***) Indications
for the use of Beta-blockers include all of the following, except:
A.
Hypothyroidism
B.
Angina
C.
Hypertension
D.
After myocardial infarction
E.
Congestive heart failure
Answer: A* Hypothyroidism
***) Indications
for the use of Beta-blockers include all of the following, except:
A.
Hypertension
B.
Ischemic heart disease
C.
Migraine
D.
Bronchial asthma
E.
Anxiety
Answer: D* Bronchial asthma
***) Side
effects of propranolol include all of the following, except:
A.
Cold extremities
B.
Depression
C.
Nightmares
D.
Bronchospasm
E.
Tremors
Answer: E* Tremors
2. Digoxin.
***) The
treatment of digitalis-induced arrhythmia may include all of the following,
except:
A.
Withdrawal of digitalis
B.
Phenytoin administration
C.
Calcium gluconate administration
D.
Potassium supplements
E.
Xylocaine administration
Answer:
C* Calcium gluconate administration
***) All
of the following are side effects of digoxin therapy, except:
A.
Nausea and vomiting
B.
Yellow vision
C.
AV block
D.
Ventricular extrasystole
E.
Insomnia
Answer: E* Insomnia
3. ACE inhibitors.
***) All of
the following are side effects of ACE-inhibitors, except: Q2012
A.
Hypokalemia
B.
Angioneurotic
edema
C.
Hyperkalemia
D.
Dry
cough
E.
Hypotension
Answer: A* Hypokalemia
IV.
Cardiac Diseases and Conditions.
1. Angina Pectoris.
***) A
65 year old male, presented complaining of retrosternal chest pain of 4 months
duration, the pain precipitated with walking uphill, last 5 minutes, relieved
with rest. Clinical examination was normal, and electrocardiogram was normal
sinus rhythm. The most likely diagnosis is:
A.
Stable angina pectoris
B.
Unstable angina
C.
Chronic pericarditis
D.
Musculoskeletal
E.
Reflux esophagitis
Answer: A* Stable angina pectoris
***) Which
of the following drug is useful in the treatment of angina pectoris:
A.
Salbutamol
B.
Propranolol
C.
Digoxin
D.
Quinidine
E.
Phenytoin
Answer: B* Propranolol
2. Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS).
***) 50
years old male presented with 1 hour retrosternal chest pain, BP 85/62, JVP is
10 cm, ECG shows 3 mm ST elevation in II, III, aVF and ST depression in V1, V4,
and troponin is positive. The most likely diagnosis is: Q2012
A.
Unstable
angina
B.
Stable
angina
C.
Anterior
wall MI
D.
Inferior
wall and right ventricular MI
E.
Stroke
Answer: D* Inferior wall and right
ventricular MI
***) All
the following can cause false positive troponin except: Q2012
A.
Septic
shock
B.
Pulmonary
embolism
C.
Pulmonary
edema
D.
Uncontrolled
HTN
E.
Renal
failure
Answer: D* Uncontrolled HTN
***) All
the following can cause increased in troponin except: Q2012
A.
Pulmonary
edema
B.
MI
C.
Pneumonia
D.
Congestive
heart failure
E.
Myocarditis
Answer: C* Pneumonia
***) All
the following are features of metabolic syndrome except: Q2012
A.
BP
over than 135/85
B.
LDL
over than 160
C.
FBS
over than 110
D.
HDL
less than 50 in females
E.
Waist
circumference over than 40 inches in males
Answer: B* LDL over than 160
***) Risk
factors for ischemic heart disease include all the following, except:
A.
Hypertension
B.
Smoking
C.
Obesity
D.
High cholesterol level
E.
High level of high density lipoproteins (HDL)
Answer: E* High level of high density
lipoproteins (HDL)
***) Risk
factors for ischemic heart disease include all the following, except:
A.
Excessive exercise
B.
Positive family history
C.
Cigarette smoking
D.
Hypertension
E.
Hyperlipidemia
Answer: A* Excessive exercise
***) Major
risk factors for coronary artery disease include all the following except:
A.
Hypertension
B.
Smoking
C.
Male sex
D.
Elevated low density lipoprotein level (LDL)
E.
Elevated high density lipoprotein level (HDL)
Answer: E* Elevated high density
lipoprotein level (HDL)
***) All
of the following are risk factors for coronary artery disease, except:
A.
Hyperlipoproteinemia
B.
Diabetes mellitus
C.
Hypertension
D.
Obesity
E.
Diet rich in polyunsaturated fats
Answer: E* Diet rich in polyunsaturated
fats
***) The
prognosis of myocardial infarction is adversely affected by all of the
following, except:
A.
Diabetes mellitus
B.
Left ventricular failure
C.
Syncope
D.
Advancing age
E.
Nausea and vomiting
Answer: E* Nausea and vomiting
***) All
of the followings are true regarding chest pain of myocardial infarction,
except:
A.
Duration more than 30 minutes
B.
Associated with nausea
C.
Relieved with sublingual nitrate
D.
Not related to breathing
E.
Left shoulder radiation
Answer: D* Not related to breathing
***) In
acute myocardial infarction, all are true except:
A.
Can be silent
B.
Can lead to heart failure
C.
May result in sudden death
D.
Always treated conservatively
E.
Pain relief is of utmost importance
Answer: D* Always treated
conservatively
***) In
myocardial infarction the following serum enzyme rises latest and remains
elevated for the longest period:
A.
SGOT
B.
LDH
C.
Alkaline phosphatase
D.
CPK
E.
Acid phosphatase
Answer: B* LDH
3. Management of Acute Coronary Syndrome.
***) 60
years old male presented with chest pain, ECG shows ST elevation in V1 V6, BP
165/95. The patient has an episode of upper GI bleeding 6 months ago, and the
nearest cath lab is 2 hours away. Best next step: Q2012
A.
Send
him to cath lab immediately
B.
Give
him thrombolytic, because there is no contraindication
C.
Don’t
give him thrombolytic due to recent bleeding
D.
Don’t
give him thrombolytic due to high BP and recent bleeding
E.
Don’t
give him thrombolytic due to high BP
Answer: B* Give him thrombolytic, because
there is no contraindication
***) All
of the following about myocardial infarction are true, except:
A.
May present with pulmonary edema
B.
Streptokinase is used in management
C.
Morphine is helpful
D.
Captopril is contraindicated
E.
Arrhythmias are the commonest cause of death in the first hour
Answer: D* Captopril is contraindicated
***) The
management of unstable angina includes all of the following, except:
A.
Aspirin
B.
Anticoagulants
C.
Digoxin
D.
Nitrates
E.
Beta blockers
Answer: C* Digoxin
***) All
of the following are used in the treatment of acute myocardial infarction,
except:
A.
Morphine
B.
Streptokinase
C.
Nitroglycerin
D.
Aspirin
E.
Salbutamol
Answer: E* Salbutamol
4. Complications of Myocardial Infarction.
***) All of
the followings are complications of myocardial infarction, except: Q2012
A.
Rupture
chorda tendeni
B.
Mitral
regurgitation
C.
DVT
D.
Pericarditis
E.
Recurrent
laryngeal nerve palsy
Answer: E* Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
***) All
of the followings are complications of myocardial infarction, except:
A.
Atrial fibrillation
B.
Heart failure
C.
Systemic embolization
D.
Endocarditis
E.
Papillary muscle rupture
Answer: D* Endocarditis
***) Myocardial
rupture as a complication of myocardial infarction is most likely to occur
during the:
A.
1st Week
B.
2nd Week
C.
3rd Week
D.
4th Week
E.
5th Week
Answer: A*1st Week
5. Arrhythmias.
***) Patient
known to have Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome presented with atrial
fibrillation, stable vitals. The best management is: Q2012
A.
Verapamil
IV
B.
Digoxin
IV
C.
DC
shock
D.
Amiodarone
IV
E.
Diltiazem
IV
Answer: D* Amiodarone IV
***) 50
years old male asthmatic presented with palpitations, BP 130/85, ECG showed
narrow QRS complex, regular, absent P wave. The best management is: Q2012
A.
Propranolol
IV
B.
Diltiazem
IV
C.
Adenosine
IV
D.
DC
shock
E.
Amiodarone
IV
Answer: B* Diltiazem IV
***) All
the followings are antiarrhythmics drugs, except: Q2012
A.
Xylocaine
B.
Terbutaline
C.
Quinidine
D.
Amiodarone
E.
Procainamide
Answer: B* Terbutaline
***) Electrical
cardioversion is a useful mode of therapy in each of the following, except:
A.
Ventricular tachycardia
B.
Ventricular fibrillation
C.
Bradycardia due to hypothyroidism
D.
Atrial fibrillation
E.
Atrial flutter
Answer: C* Bradycardia due to
hypothyroidism
6. Narrow Complex Tachycardia.
***) Each
of the following may be useful in the treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular
tachycardia, except:
A.
Atropine
B.
Digitalis
C.
Beta-blockers
D.
Verapamil
E.
Carotid sinus massage
Answer: A* Atropine
7. Broad Complex Tachycardia.
***) All
of the following drugs may be used in the treatment of acute ventricular
tachycardia, except:
A.
Digoxin
B.
Lignocaine
C.
Procainamide
D.
Flecainide
E.
Bretylium
Answer: A* Digoxin
***) All
of the following drugs may be used to treat ventricular tachycardia, except:
A.
Lignocaine
B.
Amiodarone
C.
Verapamil
D.
Phenytoin
E.
Procainamide
Answer: C* Verapamil
***) Recognized
causes of ventricular extrasystoles include all of the following, except:
A.
Hypokalemia
B.
Beta blockers drugs
C.
Digitalis
D.
Quinidine
E.
Tricyclic antidepressants
Answer: D* Quinidine
8. Atrial Fibrillation.
***) All
of the following are causes of atrial fibrillation, except:
A.
Ischemic heart disease
B.
Rheumatic heart disease
C.
Digitalis
D.
Thyrotoxicosis
E.
Pneumonia
Answer: C* Digitalis
9. Heart Failure.
***) All
of the following are features of left ventricular failure, except:
A.
Orthopnea
B.
Peripheral edema
C.
Pulsus alternans
D.
Bilateral basal crepitations
E.
Kerley B lines on chest X-ray
Answer: B* Peripheral edema
***) Signs
of left ventricular failure include all of the following, except:
A.
Third heart sound
B.
Triple rhythm
C.
Pulsus alternans
D.
Bilateral basal crepitation
E.
Gross liver enlargement
Answer: E* Gross liver enlargement
***) Signs
of left heart failure include all of the following, except:
A.
Gallop rhythm
B.
Basal crepitation
C.
Pulsus alternans
D.
Hepatomegaly
E.
Displaced and sustained apical impulse
Answer: D* Hepatomegaly
***) A
50 years old male who was seen in the casualty complained of sudden onset
severe left anterior chest pain radiating to the left arm. It was not relieved
by sublingual nitrates. He was short of breath; frothy blood was coming out of
his mouth. He was hypotensive, cold, cyanotic and profusely sweating. There
were diffuse bilateral wheezes and basal crepitations on chest examination. The
heart sounds were soft and there was third heart sound, but there were no
murmurs. Patient suffering from:
A.
Acute bronchial asthma
B.
Angina pectoris with acute bronchial asthma
C.
Acute pulmonary edema secondary to myocardial infarction
D.
Acute viral pneumonia with pleuritic chest pain
E.
Dissecting aneurysm
Answer: C* Acute pulmonary edema
secondary to myocardial infarction
***) Crepitations
which are late inspiratory and unchanged with cough are typical of: Q2012
A.
Pneumonia
B.
Lung
fibrosis
C.
Pleural
effusion
D.
Pulmonary
edema
E.
Subcutaneous
emphysema
Answer: D* Pulmonary edema
***) Pulmonary
edema may complicate all of the following, except:
A.
Diuretic therapy
B.
Rapid withdrawal of air from pleural cavity
C.
Bums
D.
Radiotherapy of the chest
E.
Septicemia
Answer: A* Diuretic therapy
***) Pulmonary
edema is caused by all except:
A.
Fallot Tetralogy
B.
Acute glomerulonephritis
C.
Aspiration of hydrocarbons
D.
Left to right shunt
E.
Hypervolemia
Answer: E* Hypervolemia
10.
Management
of Heart Failure.
***) The
following drugs are used in the treatment of congestive cardiac failure,
except:
A.
Captopril
B.
Morphine
C.
Chlorothiazide
D.
Bumetanide
E.
Digoxin
Answer: B* Morphine
11.
Hypertension.
***) Causes
of secondary hypertension include all of the following, except: Q2012
A.
Renal
artery stenosis
B.
Crohn's
disease
C.
Cushing's
syndrome
D.
Polycystic
kidney disease
E.
Primary
hyperaldosteronism
Answer: B* Crohn's disease
***) One of
the following is not antihypertensive drug: Q2012
A.
Atenolol
B.
Lisinopril
C.
Simvastatin
D.
Candesartan
E.
Amlodipine
Answer: C* Simvastatin
***) Uncontrolled
hypertension increases risk of all of the following, except:
A.
Early death
B.
Myocardial infarction
C.
Pulmonary embolism
D.
Cerebral hemorrhage
E.
Confusion state
Answer: C* Pulmonary embolism
***) Causes
of secondary hypertension include all of the following, except:
A.
Addison's disease
B.
Renal artery stenosis
C.
Primary hyperaldosteronism
D.
Coarctation of aorta
E.
Acromegaly
Answer: A* Addison's disease
***) All
of the following are causes of endocrine hypertension, except:
A.
Conn's syndrome
B.
Pheochromocytoma
C.
Hypoparathyroidism
D.
Acromegaly
E.
Cushing's syndrome
Answer: C* Hypoparathyroidism
***) A
blood pressure cuff that is too small gives:
A.
False low readings
B.
False high readings
C.
Slightly lower readings than usual
D.
Markedly lower readings than usual
E.
Accurate readings
Answer: B* False high readings
12.
Management
of Hypertension.
***) All
of the following drugs are used in the treatment of hypertension, except:
A.
Nifedipine
B.
Captopril
C.
Dopamine
D.
Hydralazine
E.
Propranolol
Answer: C* Dopamine
***) All
of the following drugs are used in the management of hypertensive crises,
except:
A.
Nitroprusside
B.
Hydralazine
C.
Nifedipine
D.
Salbutamol
E.
Diazoxide
Answer: D* Salbutamol
***) The
following drugs could be given safely as a treatment of hypertension to a
patient with peripheral vascular disease, except:
A.
Alpha-methyldopa
B.
Nifedipine
C.
Captopril
D.
Propranolol
E.
Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer: D* Propranolol
13.
Rheumatic
Fever.
***) All
of the following are major criteria for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever,
except:
A.
Arthritis
B.
Prolongation of PR interval on ECG
C.
Chorea
D.
Erythema marginatum
E.
Subcutaneous nodules
Answer: B* Prolongation of PR interval
on ECG
***) All
of the following are major criteria for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever,
except:
A.
Carditis
B.
Polyarthritis
C.
Chorea
D.
Arthralgia
E.
Erythema marginatum
Answer: D* Arthralgia
***) All
of the following are major criteria of rheumatic fever, except:
A.
Fever
B.
Carditis
C.
Polyarthritis
D.
Chorea
E.
Subcutaneous nodules
Answer: A* Fever
***) All
of the following are major criteria for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever,
except:
A.
Arthritis
B.
Prolongation of PR interval on ECG
C.
Chorea
D.
Erythema marginatum
E.
Subcutaneous nodules
Answer: B* Prolongation of PR interval
on ECG
***) All
of the following are major criteria for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever,
except:
A.
Carditis
B.
Polyarthritis
C.
Chorea
D.
Arthralgia
E.
Erythema marginatum
Answer: D* Arthralgia
***) Major
manifestations of rheumatic fever include all the following except:
A.
Polyarthritis
B.
Carditis
C.
Chorea
D.
Erythema nodosum
E.
Subcutaneous nodules
Answer: D* Erythema
nodosum
***) John's
major criteria in rheumatic fever include all of the following, except:
A.
Carditis
B.
Chorea
C.
Arthritis
D.
Rheumatic nodules
E.
Erythema multiforme
Answer: E* Erythema multiforme
***) All
of the following drugs are used on the treatment of rheumatoid fever, except:
A.
Penicillin
B.
Erythromycin
C.
Aspirin
D.
Prednisone
E.
Copper
Answer: E* Copper
14.
Mitral
Valve Disease.
***) Rheumatic
heart disease affects most commonly one of the following:
A.
Pulmonary valve
B.
Aortic valve
C.
Mitral valve
D.
Tricuspid valve
E.
Aortic and tricuspid valve
Answer: C* Mitral valve
***) Signs
of mitral stenosis include all of the following, except:
A.
Loud first heart sound
B.
Wide pulse pressure
C.
Opening snap
D.
Pre-systolic murmur
E.
Rumbling mid-diastolic murmur
Answer: B* Wide pulse pressure
15.
Aortic
Valve Disease.
***) All
of the following about aortic stenosis are true, except:
A.
May be of rheumatic origin
B.
Causes sudden death
C.
May present as angina of effort
D.
Causes wide pulse pressure
E.
Causes left ventricular hypertrophy
Answer: D* Causes wide pulse pressure
***) In
aortic stenosis all of the following are true, except:
A.
Causes fainting attacks
B.
Angina is a common symptom
C.
The second heart sound is quite
D.
There is often previous history of syphilis
E.
Sudden death may occur
Answer: D* There is often previous
history of syphilis
***) Signs
of aortic regurgitation include all of the following, except:
A.
Capillary pulsation in the nail beds
B.
Head nodding
C.
High-pitched early diastolic murmur
D.
Pistol shot femoral pulses
E.
Small volume pulse (slow-rising pulse)
Answer: E* Small volume pulse
(slow-rising pulse)
***) Signs
of aortic regurgitation include all of the following, except:
A.
Wide pulse pressure
B.
Early diastolic blowing murmur
C.
Pulsus paradoxus
D.
Left ventricular impulse
E.
Pistol shot femoral pulses
Answer: C* Pulsus paradoxus
16.
Infective
Endocarditis.
***) The
site of endocarditis in drug abusers is: Q2012
A.
Mitral
valve
B.
Tricuspid
valve
C.
Aortic
valve
D.
ASD
E.
SA
node
Answer: B* Tricuspid valve
***) The
most common organism in infective endocarditis is:
A.
Streptococcus fecalis
B.
Staphylococcus aureus
C.
Staphylococcus epidermis
D.
Streptococcus viridans
E.
Candida albicans
Answer: D* Streptococcus viridans
***) All
of the following are features of infective endocarditis, except:
A.
Clubbing
B.
Hepatomegaly
C.
Anemia
D.
Osler's nodes
E.
Splinter hemorrhages
Answer: B* Hepatomegaly
***) All
of the following are recognized finding in infective endocarditis, except:
A.
Hematuria
B.
Changing murmur
C.
Koilonychia
D.
Osler's node
E.
Splenomegaly
Answer: C* Koilonychia
***) Clinical
features of subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) may include all of the
following, except:
A.
Anemia
B.
Splenomegaly
C.
Low grade fever
D.
General weakness
E.
Anorexia
Answer: C* Low grade fever
***) The
following physical signs can be found on examination of the hands of a patient
with infective endocarditis, except:
A.
Erythema marginatum
B.
Osler's nodules
C.
Splinter hemorrhage
D.
Clubbing of the fingers
E.
Janeway lesion
Answer: A* Erythema marginatum
***) All
of the following are important aspects in the prevention of subacute bacterial
endocarditis in patients with ventricular septal defect, except:
A.
The general condition of teeth
B.
The use of antibiotics for dental extraction
C.
The use of antibiotics for tonsillectomy
D.
Early use of antibiotics for bacterial infections of the respiratory
tract
E.
Monthly injections of long acting penicillin
Answer: E* Monthly injections of long
acting penicillin
17.
Pericardial
Disease.
***) The
most common feature of pericarditis involvement on physical examination is:
A.
Cardiac tamponade
B.
Ewart's sign
C.
Friction rub
D.
Venous distension
E.
Paradoxical pulse
Answer: C* Friction rub
***) The
following about acute pericarditis are true, except:
A.
May be secondary to myocardial infarction
B.
Radiation is a recognized cause
C.
Anticoagulant may be given safely
D.
The pain is relieved by leaning forward
E.
Prednisolone may be needed
Answer: C* Anticoagulant may be given
safely
***) The
following are causes of acute pericarditis, except:
A.
Rheumatoid arthritis
B.
Coxsakie B virus
C.
Myocardial infarction
D.
Systemic lupus erythematosus
E.
Hyperthyroidism
Answer: E* Hyperthyroidism
***) The
following about pericardial effusion are true, except:
A.
Pericardial friction rub may be present
B.
Causes pulsus paradoxus
C.
May occur in uremic patients
D.
Causes wide pulse pressure
E.
Jugular venous pressure is raised
Answer: D* Causes wide pulse pressure
***) In
the management of traumatic pericardial effusion all are true except:
A.
Pericardiocentesis
B.
Subxiphoid pericardiotomy (pericardial window)
C.
Thoracotomy with pericardiectomy
D.
Instillation of tetracycline in pericardial space
E.
Treatment of the underlying cause
Answer: D* Instillation of tetracycline
in pericardial space
***) In
acute cardiac tamponade all of the following are true, except:
A.
It may occur after injuries or cardiac surgery
B.
It produces a shock-like state
C.
The cardiac dullness is enlarged
D.
Jugular venous pressure is lowered with collapse of neck veins
E.
Immediate relief by aspiration or exploration must be done
Answer: D* Jugular venous pressure is
lowered with collapse of neck veins
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